CompTIA CV0-004 Sample Question Answers

Question # 1

A company serves customers globally from its website hosted in North America. A cloud engineer recently deployed new instances of the website in the Europe region. Which of the following is the most likely reason? 

A. To simplify workflow
 B. To enhance security 
C. To reduce latency 
D. To decrease cost 

Answer: C Explanation: The most likely reason for deploying new instances of a website in the Europe region, in addition to the ones hosted in North America, is to reduce latency for users located in Europe. By having the website's resources closer to the end-users, the data has a shorter distance to travel, resulting in faster load times and better performance. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 2

A systems administrator is configuring backups on a VM and needs the process to run as quickly as possible, reducing the bandwidth on the network during all times from Monday through Saturday. In the event of data corruption, the management team expects the mean time to recovery to be as low as possible. Which of the following backup methods can the administrator use to accomplish these goals? 

A. Incremental backup daily to the cloud 
B. Full backup on Sunday and incremental backups on all other days of the week 
C. Differential backup daily to the cloud 
D. Incremental backups during off-hours on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday 

Answer: B Explanation: To achieve a quick backup process and reduce bandwidth use, the administrator should perform a Full backup on Sunday and incremental backups on all other days of the week. This method ensures that only the changes made since the last full backup are copied, reducing the amount of data that needs to be transferred each time, and thus the time and bandwidth required. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

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Question # 3

An IT manager needs to deploy a cloud solution that meets the following requirements: . Users must use two authentication methods to access resources. Â? Each user must have 10GB of storage space by default. Which of the following combinations should the manager use to provision these requirements? 

A. OAuth 2.0 and ephemeral storage 
B. OIDC and persistent storage 
C. MFA and storage quotas 
D. SSO and external storage 

Answer: C Explanation: The combination that should be used to provision the requirements of two authentication methods and 10GB of storage space by default for each user is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and storage quotas. MFA provides an additional layer of security beyond just a username and password, and storage quotas can be used to allocate a specific amount of storage space for each user. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 4

Which of the following best describes a system that keeps all different versions of a software separate from each other while giving access to all of the versions? 

A. Code documentation 
B. Code control 
C. Code repository 
D. Code versioning 

Answer: D Explanation: A system that keeps all different versions of software separate from each other while providing access to all of the versions is best described by Code versioning. Code versioning systems, such as Git, allow developers to keep track of changes, revert to previous states, and manage multiple versions of codebases. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 5

A company wants to implement a work environment that will have low operational overhead and highly accessible enterprise resource planning, email, and data resources. Which of the following cloud service models should the company implement? 

A. laaS 
B. PaaS 
C. DBaaS 
D. SaaS 

Answer: D Explanation: A company that requires low operational overhead and highly accessible enterprise resources would benefit from implementing Software as a Service (SaaS). SaaS provides access to applications hosted in the cloud, eliminating the need for internal infrastructure or application development, which aligns with the requirement of having low operational overhead. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 6

A cloud service provider requires users to migrate to a new type of VM within three months. Which of the following is the best justification for this requirement? 

A. Security flaws need to be patched.
 B. Updates could affect the current state of the VMs. 
C. The cloud provider will be performing maintenance of the infrastructure. 
D. The equipment is reaching end of life and end of support. 

Answer: D Explanation: The best justification for a cloud service provider requiring users to migrate to a new type of VM within a specific time frame is that the equipment is reaching end of life and end of support (EOL/EOS). This means that the older type of VM will no longer receive updates or support, which could include important security patches, so it is necessary to move to newer VM types to maintain security and performance. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 7

Following a ransomware attack, the legal department at a company instructs the IT administrator to store the data from the affected virtual machines for a minimum of one year. Which of the following is this an example of?

 A. Recoverability 
B. Retention 
C. Encryption
 D. Integrity 

Answer: B Explanation: The instruction by the legal department to store data from the affected virtual machines for a minimum of one year is an example of data Retention. Retention policies are often driven by regulatory compliance requirements and dictate how long certain types of data must be kept before they can be securely disposed of. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 8

For compliance purposes, a cloud developer at an insurance company needs to save all customer policies for more than ten years. Which of the following options is the most costefficient tier to save the data in the cloud? 

A. Archive 
B. Hot 
C. Cold 
D. Warm 

Answer: A Explanation: For compliance purposes, saving customer policies for more than ten years most cost-efficiently can be achieved by using the Archive storage tier. Archive or archival storage is designed for data that needs to be retained over the long term but accessed infrequently. It is generally the most costeffective storage tier for this type of data. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 9

A cloud deployment uses three different VPCs. The subnets on each VPC need to communicate with the others over private channels. Which of the following will achieve this objective? 

A. Deploying a load balancer to send traffic to the private IP addresses 
B. Creating peering connections between all VPCs 
C. Adding BGP routes using the VPCs' private IP addresses 
D. Establishing identical routing tables on all VPCs 

Answer: B Explanation: To allow subnets on different VPCs to communicate with each other over private channels, the cloud engineer should create peering connections between all the VPCs. VPC Peering allows networks to connect and route traffic using private IP addresses without the need for gateways, VPN connections, or separate physical hardware. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 10

A cloud engineer needs to determine a scaling approach for a payroll-processing solution that runs on a biweekly basis. Given the complexity of the process, the deployment to each new VM takes about 25 minutes to get ready. Which of the following would be the best strategy? 

A. Horizontal 
B. Scheduled 
C. Trending 
D. Event 

Answer: B Explanation: For a biweekly payroll-processing solution that takes a significant amount of time to deploy to each new VM, the best scaling strategy is Scheduled scaling. This strategy involves preparing new instances in advance of when they are needed based on a known schedule, which in this case is the biweekly payroll process. By scheduling the scaling actions in advance, the cloud engineer ensures that the resources are ready when needed without incurring extra costs for running them all the time. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Todd Montgomery and Stephen Olson

Question # 11

A cloud solutions architect needs to have consistency between production, staging, and development environments. Which of the following options will best achieve this goal? 

A. Using Terraform templates with environment variables 
B. Using Grafana in each environment 
C. Using the ELK stack in each environment 
D. Using Jenkins agents in different environments 

Answer: A Explanation: Terraform templates with environment variables can ensure consistency across different environments such as production, staging, and development. Terraform allows for infrastructure as code, which can be used to define and maintain infrastructure with consistency. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Scott Wilson and Eric Vanderburg. 

Question # 12

Which of the following technologies should be used by a person who is visually impaired to access data from the cloud? 

A. Object character recognition 
B. Text-to-voice 
C. Sentiment analysis 
D. Visual recognition 

Answer: B Explanation: Text-to-voice (or text-to-speech) technology should be used by a person who is visually impaired to access data from the cloud. It converts text data into audible speech, allowing visually impaired individuals to receive the information audibly. Reference: CompTIA Accessibility in IT Study Guide

Question # 13

A company runs a discussion forum that caters to global users. The company's monitoring system reports that the home page suddenly is seeing elevated response times, even though internal monitoring has reported no issues or changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue? 

A. Cryptojacking 
B. Human error 
C. DDoS 
D. Phishing 

Answer: C Explanation: Elevated response times without reported issues or changes internally could indicate a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack, where multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals by Mark Ciampa. 

Question # 14

Which of the following compute resources is the most optimal for running a single scripted task on a schedule? 

A. Bare-metal server 
B. Managed container 
C. Virtual machine 
D. Serverless function 

Answer: D Explanation: Serverless functions are ideal for running scripted tasks on a schedule because they can be triggered by events, run the task, and then shut down, incurring costs only for the actual compute time used. This eliminates the need for a continuously running server and is optimal for sporadic or scheduled tasks. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Scott Wilson and Eric Vanderburg

Question # 15

A log-parsing application requires significant processing power to ingest the logs streaming from web servers. The engineering team presents the cloud architect with four proposals using the same underlying hardware. Which of the following should the cloud architect select in order to minimize the impact of an instance failure while keeping the cost as low as possible? 

.A Four instances of 4vCPU, 8GB RAM, 80GB SSD 
B. Four instances of 4vCPU, 8GB RAM, 80GB HDD 
C. Two instances of 8vCPU, 16GB RAM, 80GB SSD 
D. Two instances of 8vCPU, 16GB RAM, 80GB HDD 

Answer: A Explanation: Choosing four instances with the given specifications would distribute the load and reduce the impact of any single instance failure. Using SSDs over HDDs would provide faster data processing capabilities which is crucial for a log-parsing application. This setup also retains cost efficiency by not over-provisioning resources. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Scott Wilson and Eric Vanderburg

Question # 16

A systems engineer is migrating a batch of 25 VMs from an on-premises compute cluster to a public cloud using the public cloud's migration agent. The migration job shows data copies at a rate of 250Mbps. After five servers migrate, the data copies at a rate of 25Mbps. Which of the following should the engineer review first to troubleshoot? 

A. The on-premises VM host hardware utilization 
B. The on-premises ISP throttling rate . 
C. The IOPS on the SAN backing the on-premises cluster 
D. The compute utilization of the VMs being migrated 

Answer: A Explanation: The engineer should review the on-premises VM host hardware utilization first. A decrease in transfer rate after a batch of migrations could suggest that the host hardware resources (like CPU, RAM, or network bandwidth) are becoming saturated, which would slow down additional migrations. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Study Guide (Exam CV0-004) by Scott Wilson and Eric Vanderburg

Question # 17

Which of the following industry standards mentions that credit card data must not be exchanged or stored in cleartext? 

A. CSA 
B. GDPR 
C. SOC2 
D. PCI-DSS 

Answer: D Explanation: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is the industry standard that mandates that credit card data must not be stored or transmitted in cleartext. It includes requirements for encryption, access control, and other security measures to protect cardholder data. Reference: Official PCI Security Standards Council Site. 

Question # 18

A cloud engineer is exploring options to reduce the management overhead of the servers and network. Which of the following cloud service models should the engineer implement? 

A. SaaS 
B. XaaS 
C. PaaS 
D. laaS 

Answer: C Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an app. Adopting PaaS can significantly reduce the management overhead of servers and networks. Reference: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide (Exam CLO-002) by Scott Wilson.

Question # 19

Users have been reporting that a remotely hosted application is not accessible following a recent migration. However, the cloud administrator is able to access the application from the same site as the users. Which of the following should the administrator update? 

A. Cipher suite 
B. Network ACL 
C. Routing table 
D. Permissions 

Answer: C Explanation: Since the cloud administrator can access the application from the same site but users cannot, it suggests a possible issue with the network routing. The routing table may need to be updated to ensure that traffic from the users' location is correctly directed to the new location of the remotely hosted application after the migration. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide by Glen E. Clarke. 

Question # 20

A developer at a small startup company deployed some code for a new feature to its public repository. A few days later, a data breach occurred. A security team investigated the incident and found that the database was hacked. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this breach? 

A. Database core dump 
B. Hard-coded credentials 
C. Compromised deployment agent 
D. Unpatched web servers 

Answer: B Explanation: Hard-coded credentials within code, especially when deployed in a public repository, are a common security vulnerability. If credentials such as passwords or API keys are embedded in the code, anyone with access to the repository can potentially use them to gain unauthorized access to databases or other sensitive resources. This is a likely cause of the data breach in the scenario described. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals by Mark Ciampa